Vaccine-Preventable Diseases

Vaccine-Preventable Diseases

Influenza is a virus that can be easily spread from person to person and kills thousands of people each year. Healthcare workers are at risk of exposing themselves to infectious diseases from patients and material and therefore can also potentially transmit these diseases to others. Preventing and controlling the spread of vaccine preventable diseases in the health care setting is vital to ensure proper infection control practices should an outbreak occur. As such, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) strongly recommend vaccination of health care workers.

You are a public health researcher. You have been asked to identify a vaccine-preventable disease and create a 10- to 12-slide presentation in Microsoft PowerPoint on a research design. Your research design should focus on determining why health care workers are not receiving the vaccination for your selected vaccine-preventable disease in their place of employment.

The presentation should also include the following:

  • Researched and identified the disease to create a research plan
  • An introduction and synopsis of the selected disease
  • History of the public health issue or disease
  • Social or behavioral antecedents related to the disease
  • Epidemiological relevance of the disease
  • Proposed research design
  • Sampling plan
  • Strengths and weaknesses of chosen research design
 

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complaint urinary incontinence

For this assessment the patient will be a 63 year old female with a cystocele, and chief complaint urinary incontinence. The rest of the info can be made up such as medical history meds labs just make it believable to the pt age and diagnosis. 

Comprehensive Patient Assessment

When completing practicum requirements in clinical settings, you and your Preceptor might complete several patient assessments in the course of a day or even just a few hours. This schedule does not always allow for a thorough discussion or reflection on every patient you have seen. As a future advanced practice nurse, it is important that you take the time to reflect on a comprehensive patient assessment that includes everything from patient medical history to evaluations and follow-up care. For this Assignment, you begin to plan and write a comprehensive assessment paper that focuses on one female patient from your current practicum setting.

By Day 7 of Week 9

This Assignment is due. It is highly recommended that you begin planning and working on this Assignment as soon as it is viable.

To prepare

· Reflect on your Practicum Experience and select a female patient whom you have examined with the support and guidance of your Preceptor.

· Think about the details of the patient’s background, medical history, physical exam, labs and diagnostics, diagnosis, treatment and management plan, as well as education strategies and follow-up care.

To complete

Write an 8- to 10-page comprehensive paper that addresses the following:

· Age, race and ethnicity, and partner status of the patient

· Current health status, including chief concern or complaint of the patient

· Contraception method (if any)

· Patient history, including medical history, family medical history, gynecologic history, obstetric history, and personal social history (as appropriate to current problem)

· Review of systems

· Physical exam

· Labs, tests, and other diagnostics

· Differential diagnoses

· Management plan, including diagnosis, treatment, patient education, and follow-up care

 

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urinalysis

A patient who has diabetes reports intense discomfort when needing to void. A urinalysis is normal. To treat this, the primary care NP should consider prescribing:

flavoxate (Urispas).

bethanechol (Urecholine).

phenazopyridine (Pyridium).

oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL).

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

A patient reports difficulty returning to sleep after getting up to go to the bathroom every night. A physical examination and a sleep hygiene history are noncontributory. The primary care NP should prescribe:

zaleplon.

ZolpiMist.

ramelteon.

chloral hydrate.

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

A 5-year-old child who has no previous history of otitis media is seen in clinic with a temperature of 100° F. The primary care NP visualizes bilateral erythematous, nonbulging, intact tympanic membranes. The child is taking fluids well and is playing with toys in the examination room.The NP should:

prescribe azithromycin once daily for 5 days.

prescribe amoxicillin twice daily for 10 days.

prescribe amoxicillin-clavulanate twice daily for 10 days.

initiate antibiotic therapy if the child’s condition worsens.

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

An 80-year-old patient with congestive heart failure has a viral upper respiratory infection. The patient asks the primary care NP about treating the fever, which is 38.5° C. The NP should:

recommend acetaminophen.

recommend high-dose acetaminophen.

tell the patient that antibiotics are needed with a fever that high.

tell the patient a fever less than 40° C does not need to be treated.

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

A patient who takes levodopa and carbidopa for Parkinson’s disease reports experiencing freezing episodes between doses. The primary care NP should consider using:

selegiline.

amantadine.

apomorphine.

modified-release levodopa.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

A patient is being tapered from long-term therapy with prednisolone and reports weight loss and fatigue. The primary care NP should counsel this patient to:

consume foods high in vitamin D and calcium.

begin taking dexamethasone because it has longer effects.

expect these side effects to occur as the medication is tapered.

increase the dose of prednisolone to the most recent amount taken.

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) sees a 50-year-old woman who reports frequent leakage of urine. The NP learns that this occurs when she laughs or sneezes. She also reports having an increased urge to void even when her bladder is not full. She is not taking any medications. The NP should:

perform a dipstick urinalysis.

prescribe desmopressin (DDAVP).

prescribe oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL).

teach exercises to strengthen the pelvic muscles.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

A 7-year-old patient who has severe asthma takes oral prednisone daily. At a well-child examination, the primary care NP notes a decrease in the child’s linear growth rate. The NP should consult the child’s asthma specialist about:

gradually tapering the child off the prednisone.

a referral for possible growth hormone therapy.

giving a double dose of prednisone every other day.

dividing the prednisone dose into twice-daily dosing.

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

A patient who is taking isoniazid and rifampin for latent TB is seen by the primary care NP for a routine follow-up visit. The patient reports having nausea, vomiting, and a decreased appetite. The NP should:

ask about alcohol intake.

suggest taking the medications with food.

reassure the patient that these side effects are common.

order liver and renal function tests and serum glucose.

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

A primary care NP sees a child with asthma to evaluate the child’s response to the prescribed therapy. The child uses an ICS twice daily and an albuterol metered-dose inhaler as needed. The child’s symptoms are well controlled. The NP notes slowing of the child’s linear growth on a standardized growth chart. The NP should change this child’s medication regimen to a:

combination ICS/LABA inhaler twice daily.

short-acting 2-agonist (SABA) with oral corticosteroids when symptomatic.

combination ipratropium/albuterol inhaler twice daily.

SABA as needed plus a leukotriene modifier once daily.

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

A patient is newly diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease stage 6 on the Global Deterioration Scale. The primary care NP should prescribe:

donepezil (Aricept).

rivastigmine (Exelon).

memantine (Namenda).

galantamine (Razadyne).

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The primary care NP sees a 12-month-old infant who needs the MMR, Varivax, influenza, and hepatitis A vaccines. The child’s mother tells the NP that she is pregnant. The NP should:

administer all of these vaccines today.

give the hepatitis A and influenza vaccines.

give the Varivax, hepatitis A, and influenza vaccines.

withhold all of these vaccines until after the baby is born.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

A parent brings a 5-year-old child to a clinic for a hospital follow-up appointment. The child is taking a medication at a dose equal to an adult dose.The parent reports that the medication is not producing the desired effects. The NP should:

order renal function tests.

prescribe another medication to treat this child’s symptoms.

discontinue the drug and observe the child for toxic side effects.

obtain a serum drug level and consider increasing the drug dose.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

An NP orders an inhaled corticosteroid 2 puffs twice daily and an albuterol metered-dose inhaler 2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for cough or wheezing for a 65-year-old patient with recent onset of reactive airways disease who reports symptoms occurring every 1 or 2 weeks. At a follow-up appointment several months later, the patient reports no change in frequency of symptoms. The NP’s initial action should be to:

order spirometry to evaluate pulmonary function.

prescribe a systemic corticosteroid to help with symptoms.

ask the patient to describe how the medications are taken each day.

give the patient detailed information about the use of metered-dose inhalers.

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

A patient is diagnosed with a condition that causes chronic pain. The primary care NP prescribes an opioid analgesic and should instruct the patient to:

wait until the pain is at a moderate level before taking the medication.

take the medication at regular intervals and not just when pain is present.

start the medication at higher doses initially and taper down gradually.

take the minimum amount needed even when pain is severe to avoid dependency.

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

A patient tells the primary care NP that he has difficulty getting and maintaining an erection. The NP’s initial response should be to:

prescribe sildenafil (Viagra).

perform a medication history.

evaluate his cardiovascular status.

order a papaverine injection test to screen for erectile dysfunction.

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

A 55-year-old patient develops Parkinson’s disease characterized by unilateral tremors only. The primary care NP will refer the patient to a neurologist and should expect initial treatment to be:

levodopa.

carbidopa.

pramipexole.

carbidopa/levodopa.

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

A patient who has migraine headaches without an aura reports difficulty treating the migraines in time because they come on so suddenly. The patient has been using over-the-counter NSAIDs. The primary care NP should prescribe:

frovatriptan (Frova).

sumatriptan (Imitrex).

cyproheptadine (Periactin).

dihydroergotamine (D.H.E. 45).

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

A woman tells a primary care NP that she is considering getting pregnant. During a health history, the NP learns that the patient has seasonal allergies, asthma, and epilepsy, all of which are well controlled with a second-generation antihistamine daily, an inhaled steroid daily with albuterol as needed, and an antiepileptic medication daily. The NP should counsel this patient to:

take her asthma medications only when she is having an acute exacerbation.

avoid using antihistamine medications during her first trimester of pregnancy.

discontinue her seizure medications at least 6 months before becoming pregnant.

use only oral corticosteroids and not inhaled steroids while pregnant for improved asthma control.

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

A patient who has partial seizures has been taking phenytoin (Dilantin). The patient has recently developed thrombocytopenia. The primary care nurse practitioner (NP) should contact the patient’s neurologist to discuss changing the patient’s medication to:

topiramate (Topamax).

levetiracetam (Keppra).

zonisamide (Zonegran).

carbamazepine (Tegretol).

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

A patient is taking dicloxacillin (Dynapen) 500 mg every 6 hours to treat a severe penicillinase-resistant infection. At a 1-week follow-up appointment, the patient reports nausea, vomiting, and epigastric discomfort. The primary care NP should:

change the medication to a cephalosporin.

decrease the dose to 250 mg every 6 hours.

reassure the patient that these are normal adverse effects of this drug.

order blood cultures, a white blood cell (WBC) count with differential, and liver function tests (LFTs).

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

A 75-year-old patient who lives alone will begin taking a narcotic analgesic for pain. To help ensure patient safety, the NP prescribing this medication should:

assess this patient’s usual sleeping patterns.

 

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sexual transmission of HIV,

After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can be infected yet seronegative for _____ months.

24 to 36

6 to 14

18 to 20

1 to 2

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Once they have penetrated the first line of defense, which microorganisms do neutrophils actively attack, engulf, and destroy by phagocytosis?

Mycoplasma

Fungi

Viruses

Bacteria

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

Cells in _____ may act as a reservoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs.

bone marrow

the lungs

the thymus gland

the central nervous system

HIV may persist in regions where the antiviral drugs are not as effective, such as the

CNS.

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

What of the following remains a significant cause of morbidity and mortality worldwide?

Cardiovascular disease

Starvation

Traumatic injury

Infectious disease

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

Which statement about vaccines is true?

Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms.

Vaccines require booster injections to maintain lifelong protection.

Vaccines provide effective protection for all people against viruses, bacteria, and fungal infections.

Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Which statement is true about fungal infections?

They are prevented by vaccines.

They result in release of endotoxins.

They occur only on skin, hair, and nails.

They are controlled by phagocytes and T lymphocytes.

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

What is the mechanism in type III hypersensitivity reactions?

Antibodies bind to the antigen on the cell surface.

Antibodies bind to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes are deposited in the tissues.

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells attack and destroy cellular targets directly.

Antibodies coat mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation followed by discharge of preformed mediators.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

A person with type O blood is likely to have high titers of anti-___ antibodies.

O

B

A

A and B

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

What disease involves the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against host DNA, resulting in tissue damage?

Pernicious anemia

Myasthenia gravis

Hemolytic anemia

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

In which primary immune deficiency is there a partial to complete absence of T-cell immunity?

DiGeorge syndrome

Bruton disease

Reticular dysgenesis

Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n)

disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens.

altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease.

undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens.

immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The class of antibody involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions is

IgE.

IgM.

IgA.

IgG.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Magnesium

Iron

Iodine

Zinc

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

What effect does estrogen have on lymphocytes?

Enhancement of B cells and T cells

Depression of T cells and enhancement of B cells

Depression of B cells and enhancement of T cells

Depression of B cells and T cells

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

Stress-age syndrome results in decreased

ACTH.

catecholamines.

cortisol.

immune system.

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

IL-1 and IL-6

TNF-ß and IL-4

IL-2 and TNF-?

IFN and IL-12

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

During a stress response, increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal is prompted by

ACTH.

norepinephrine.

cortisol.

epinephrine.

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

Cells from a muscle tumor show a reduced ability to form new muscle and appear highly disorganized. This is an example of

anaplasia.

dysplasia.

myoplasia.

hyperplasia.

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), and transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-?) in cell metastasis?

To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells

To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells

To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis

To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

Which of the viruses below are oncogenic DNA viruses?

Adenoviruses, herpesviruses, and retroviruses

Herpesviruses, retroviruses, and papovaviruses

Retroviruses, papovaviruses, and adenoviruses

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, and herpesviruses

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following represents the correct nomenclature for benign and malignant tumors of adipose tissue, respectively?

Liposarcoma, lipoma

Adipoma, adisarcoma

Adisarcoma, adipoma

Lipoma, liposarcoma

Question 22

0 / 2 pts

In chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), a piece of chromosome 9 fuses to a piece of chromosome 22. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes?

Chromosome fusion

Chromosome translocation

Gene amplification

Point mutation

Question 23

0 / 2 pts

Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene?

Growth-promoting genes

Oncogenes

Tumor-suppressor genes

Proto-oncogenes

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Tobacco smoking is associated with cancers of all of the following except

bladder.

kidney.

pancreas.

lung.

skin.

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

What percentage of children with cancer can be cured?

40%

50%

70%

60%

 

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intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

What is a major determinant of the resting membrane potential necessary for transmission of nerve impulses?

The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular Na+

The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular K+

The ratio between intracellular Na+ and extracellular sodium

The ratio between intracellular K+ and extracellular potassium

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Chvostek sign and Trousseau sign indicate

hypercalcemia.

hypokalemia.

hyperkalemia.

hypocalcemia.

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

Physiologic pH is maintained around 7.4 because bicarbonate (HCO3) and carbonic acid (H2CO3) exist in a ratio of

1:20.

10:2.

10:5.

20:1.

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular compartment is primarily a function of

osmotic forces.

antidiuretic hormone.

hydrostatic forces.

plasma oncotic pressure.

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

Which are indications of dehydration?

Tachycardia and weight loss

Muscle weakness and decreased deep tendon reflexes

Polyuria and hyperventilation

Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

At the arterial end of capillaries, fluid moves from the intravascular space into the interstitial space because the

capillary oncotic pressure is lower than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary oncotic pressure.

interstitial hydrostatic pressure is higher than the capillary hydrostatic pressure.

interstitial oncotic pressure is higher than the interstitial hydrostatic pressure.

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

In hyperkalemia, cardiac rhythm changes are a direct result of

cardiac cell repolarization.

depression of the sinoatrial (SA) node.

cardiac cell hypopolarization.

cardiac cell hyperexcitability.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of

chronic bronchitis.

pneumonia.

asthma.

emphysema.

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

In ARDS, alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of the

compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation.

inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells.

increased capillary hydrostatic pressure that forces fluid into the alveoli and respiratory bronchioles.

increased capillary permeability, which causes alveoli and respiratory bronchioles to fill with fluid.

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Pulmonary edema usually begins at a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or left atrial pressure of _____ mm Hg.

20

40

30

10

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with

drugs that reduce bronchospasm.

broad-spectrum antibiotics.

elimination of the causative agent.

drugs that decrease airway inflammation.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through

decreased inspired oxygen.

diffusion abnormalities.

hypoventilation.

shunting.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Which pleural abnormality involves a site of pleural rupture that act as a one-way valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration?

Open pneumothorax

Secondary pneumothorax

Tension pneumothorax

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

Clinical manifestations of pulmonary hypertension include

dyspnea on exertion and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

productive cough and rhonchi bilaterally.

peripheral edema and jugular venous distention.

systemic blood pressure greater than 130/90.

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

In tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating which action?

macrophages that release TNF-alpha (TNF-α) 

apoptotic infected macrophages that activate cytotoxic T cells.

phagocytosis by neutrophils and eosinophils.

formation of immunoglobulin G to initiate the complement cascade.

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

A(n) _____ is a circumscribed area of suppuration and destruction of lung parenchyma.

empyema

cavitation

consolidation

abscess

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

_____ is a fulminant form of respiratory failure characterized by acute lung inflammation and diffuse alveolocapillary injury.

Pneumonia

Acute pulmonary edema

Pulmonary emboli

Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Question 18

0 / 2 pts

Dyspnea is not a result of

fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm.

decreased pH, increased PaCO2, and decreased PaO2.

stimulation of stretch or J-receptors.

decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

The release of fibroblast growth factors affects ARDS by causing

disruption of alveolocapillary membrane.

pulmonary fibrosis.

pulmonary hypertension.

atelectasis and decreased lung compliance.

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following types of croup is most common?

Autoimmune

Bacterial

Fungal

Viral

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Chest wall compliance in infants is _____ in adults.

unlike that

lower than

higher than

the same as

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

What is the primary cause of RDS of the newborn?

Anemia

An immature immune system

Small alveoli

A surfactant deficiency

Question 23

0 / 2 pts

Which of the following statements about the advances in the treatment of RDS of the newborn is incorrect?

Treatment includes the instillation of exogenous surfactant down an endotracheal tube of infants weighing less than 1,000 g.

Administering glucocorticoids to women in preterm labor accelerates the maturation of the fetus’s lungs.

Supporting the infant’s respiratory function by using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). An infant’s respiratory function is supported by using continuous pressure (CPAP).

Administering oxygen to mothers during preterm labor increases their arterial oxygen before birth of the fetus.

Administration of oxygen to the mother is not a valid treatment of RDS.

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Which immunoglobulin is present in childhood asthma?

IgG

IgA

IgE

IgM

Included in the long list of asthma-associated genes are those that code for increased levels of immune and inflammatory mediators (e.g., IL-4, IgE, and leukotrienes), nitric oxide, and transmembrane proteins in the endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

Cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a(n)

autosomal dominant inheritance.

autosomal recessive inheritance.

infection.

malignancy.

 

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hemolytic anemia, jaundice

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

In hemolytic anemia, jaundice occurs only when

the patient has elevations in aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT).

heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.

the erythrocytes are coated with an immunoglobulin.

erythrocytes are destroyed in the spleen.

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Symptoms of polycythemia vera are mainly the result of

destruction of erythrocytes.

neurologic involvement.

increased blood viscosity.

a decreased erythrocyte count.

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

The underlying disorder of _____ anemia is defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12.

pernicious

microcytic

hypochromic

hemolytic

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

Pernicious anemia generally requires continued therapy lasting

8 to 12 months.

the rest of one’s life.

until the iron level is normal.

6 to 8 weeks.

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

In some anemias, the erythrocytes are present in various sizes, which is referred to as

microcytosis.

poikilocytosis.

isocytosis.

anisocytosis.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Untreated pernicious anemia is fatal, usually because of

renal failure.

heart failure.

brain hypoxia.

liver hypoxia.

Question 7

0 / 2 pts

Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease–related lymphadenopathy are a result of

inflammation and ischemia.

obstruction and pressure.

ischemia and pressure.

pressure and obstruction.

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

What is the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency?

An IgG-mediated autoimmune disorder

Liver failure

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with antibiotic therapy

Administration of warfarin (Coumadin)

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is described as a(n)

IgG immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.

hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body’s needs.

cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.

IgE-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets.

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Which proinflammatory cytokines are responsible for the development and maintenance of DIC?

Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a); IL-1, IL-6, and IL-8; and platelet-activatingfactor (PAF)

Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF); IL-3, IL-5, and IL-9, and IFN-?

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF); IL-2, IL-4, and IL-10; and IFN-?

Macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF); IL-7, IL-11, and IL-14; and PAF

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

G6PD and sickle cell disease are

diagnosed equally in men and women.

inherited autosomal recessive disorders.

inherited X-linked recessive disorders.

disorders initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

The sickle cell trait differs from sickle cell disease in that the child with sickle cell trait

has the mildest form of the disease with normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin F, which prevents sickling.

has a mild form of sickle cell disease that causes sickling during fever and infection, but not during acidosis or hypoxia, whereas the child with sickle cells disease develops sickling during each of these conditions.

has a milder form of the disease that is characterized by vaso-occlusive crises and is believed to result from higher hemoglobin values and viscosity.

inherited normal hemoglobin A from one parent and Hb S from the other parent, whereas the child with sickle cell disease has Hb S from both parents.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur if the mother is

type AB blood and the fetus has type B.

Rh-positive and the fetus is Rh-negative.

Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive.

type A blood and the fetus has type O.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?

Icterus gravis neonatorum

Jaundice

Kernicterus

Icterus neonatorum

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult is _____ days.

30 to 50; 80

60 to 80; 120

120 to 130; 150

90 to 110; 140

Question 16

0 / 2 pts

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune process involving antibodies against

eosinophils.

basophils.

neutrophils.

platelets.

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?

15

10

25

20

Question 18

0 / 2 pts

The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by

obesity.

hypertension.

high alcohol consumption.

diabetes mellitus.

Question 19

0 / 2 pts

What alteration occurs in injured endothelial cells that contributes to atherosclerosis?

They are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines.

They produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines.

They develop a hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids.

They release toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

Increases preload and decreases afterload

Increases preload and increases afterload

Decreases preload and decreases afterload

Decreases preload and increases afterload

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

What is the most important clinical manifestation of aortic coarctation in the neonate?

Congestive heart failure (CHF)

Cor pulmonale

Cerebral hypertension

Pulmonary hypertension

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

When does most cardiovascular development occur?

Between the 12th and 14th weeks of gestation

Between the eighth and 10th weeks of gestation

By the 28th day of gestation

Between the fourth and seventh weeks of gestation

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

Which heart defect produces a systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border that transmits to the neck and left lower sternal border with an occasional ejection click?

Pulmonic stenosis

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

Aortic stenosis

Coarctation of the aorta

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?

Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis

Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus

Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia

Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

The foramen ovale is covered by a flap that creates a check valve allowing blood to flow unidirectionally from the _____ to the _____.

right atrium; left atrium

right atrium; right ventricle

right ventricle; left ventricle

left atrium; left ventricle

 

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throat in a child demonstrating

Examination of the throat in a child demonstrating signs and symptoms of acute epiglottitis may contribute to which life-threatening complication?

Retropharyngeal abscess

Laryngospasms

Rupturing of the tonsils

Gagging induced aspiration

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

Causes of hyperkalemia include:

Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition

Vomiting and diarrhea

Renal failure and Addison disease

Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?

20 to 30

60 to 90

100 to 120

200 to 240

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking?

Alcohol

Steroids

Antihistamines

Antidepressants

Question 5

0 / 2 pts

Which hepatitis virus is known to be sexually transmitted?

A

B

C

D

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

What is the purpose of the spirometry measurement?

To evaluate the cause of hypoxia

To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration

To measures the gas diffusion rate at the alveolocapillary membrane

To determine pH and oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?

Sodium retention

Sodium excretion

Water retention

Water excretion

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

What is the most important negative inotropic agent?

Norepinephrine

Epinephrine

Acetylcholine

Dopamine

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

Immature immune system

Small alveoli

Surfactant deficiency

Anemia

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody?

IgG

IgM

IgA

IgE

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

Low plasma albumin causes edema as a result of a reduction in which pressure?

Capillary hydrostatic

Interstitial hydrostatic

Plasma oncotic

Interstitial oncotic

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?

Aplastic

Sideroblastic

Anemia of chronic disease

Iron deficiency

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

An infant’s hemoglobin must fall below ___ g/dl before signs of pallor, tachycardia, and systolic murmurs occur.

11

9

7

5

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

Macula densa

Visceral epithelium

Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

Filtration slits

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?

Vagus

Phrenic

Brachial

Pectoral

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

Which statement best describes a Schilling test?

Administration of radioactive cobalamin and the measurement of its excretion in the urine to test for vitamin B12 deficiency

Measurement of antigen-antibody immune complexes in the blood to test for hemolytic anemia

Measurement of serum ferritin and total iron-binding capacity in the blood to test for iron deficiency anemia

Administration of folate and measurement in 2 hours of its level in a blood sample to test for folic acid deficiency anemia.

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Which disorder results in decreased erythrocytes and platelets with changes in leukocytes and has clinical manifestations of pallor, fatigue, petechiae, purpura, bleeding, and fever?

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL)

Iron deficiency anemia (IDA)

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?

Lying on their left side

Performing the Valsalva maneuver

Squatting

Hyperventilating

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?

Antidiuretic hormone

Aldosterone

Cortisol

Adrenocorticotropin hormone

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?

Hypotension

Hyperesthesia

Hypoxia

Ischemia

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?

Mitral regurgitation

Mitral stenosis

Pulmonary edema

Jugular vein distention

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood asthma?

Cluster of differentiation (CD) 4 T-helper Th1 lymphocytes

CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes

CD8 cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Memory T lymphocytes

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?

Peripheral nerves

Parasympathetic fibers

Sympathetic nervous system

Tenth thoracic nerve roots

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following is classified as a megaloblastic anemia?

Iron deficiency

Pernicious

Sideroblastic

Hemolytic

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the nurse expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?

Left lung

Right lung

Trachea

Carina

Question 26

0 / 2 pts

The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?

Bones

Brain

Bladder

Kidney

Question 27

2 / 2 pts

Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?

Prefrontal cortex

Anterior pituitary

Limbic system

Hypothalamus

Question 28

2 / 2 pts

Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?

Atelectasis and pneumonia

Edema of the hands and feet

Stasis ulcers of the hands, ankles, and feet

Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly

Question 29

2 / 2 pts

Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?

IL–1 and IL-6

IL-2 and TNF-?

IFN and IL-12

TNF-ß and IL-4

Question 30

2 / 2 pts

The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?

Fetal

Neonatal

Infancy

Puberty

Question 31

2 / 2 pts

Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge?

Trachea

Left lung

Bronchus

Bronchioles

Question 32

2 / 2 pts

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?

IgM

IgG

IgE

IgA

Question 33

2 / 2 pts

Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?

0 and 1

2 and 4

5 and 6

6 and 7

Question 34

2 / 2 pts

Which complex (wave) represents the sum of all ventricular muscle cell depolarizations?

PRS

QRS

QT interval

P

Question 35

2 / 2 pts

When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?

Genital herpes

Chancroid

Syphilis

Chlamydia

Question 36

2 / 2 pts

What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?

Low birth weight

Alcohol consumption during pregnancy

Premature birth

Smoking during pregnancy

Question 37

2 / 2 pts

Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?

Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.

Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.

Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.

Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.

Question 38

2 / 2 pts

Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B- and T-cell function?

Iron

Zinc

Iodine

Magnesium

Question 39

0 / 2 pts

The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?

Right-to-left blood shunting

Left-to-right blood shunting

Blood flow from the umbilical cord

Blood flow to the lungs

Question 40

2 / 2 pts

Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?

Difficult deflation

Easy inflation

Stiffness

Inability to diffuse oxygen

Question 41

2 / 2 pts

If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, then at what rate (depolarizations per minute) can the atri-oventricular (AV) node depolarize?

60 to 70

40 to 60

30 to 40

10 to 20

Question 42

2 / 2 pts

Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?

The resulting pain is severe.

Benign tumors are not encapsulated.

Benign tumors are fast growing.

The cells are well-differentiated.

Question 43

2 / 2 pts

How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?

75 to 100 ml

100 to 150 ml

250 to 300 ml

350 to 400 ml

Question 44

2 / 2 pts

How high does the plasma glucose have to be before the threshold for glucose is achieved?

126 mg/dl

150 mg/dl

180 mg/dl

200 mg/dl

Question 45

0 / 2 pts

Apoptosis is a(an):

Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive

Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb

Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene

Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia

Question 46

0 / 2 pts

What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?

Initiates the clotting cascade.

Activates platelets.

Stimulates fibrin.

Deactivates fibrinogen.

Question 47

0 / 2 pts

Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infant’s:

High body surface–to–body size ratio

Slow metabolic rate

Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses

Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty

Question 48

0 / 2 pts

What is the action of urodilatin?

Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.

It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.

Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.

It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.

Question 49

0 / 2 pts

Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?

The right and left atria; they are low-pressure chambers that serve as storage units and conduits for blood.

The right and left atria; they are not directly involved in the preload, contractility, or afterload of the heart.

The left ventricle; the mean pressure of blood coming into this ventricle is from the lung, which has a low pressure.

The right ventricle; it pumps blood into the pulmonary capillaries, which have a lower pressure compared with the systemic circulation.

Question 50

0 / 2 pts

Research supports the premise that exercise has a probable impact on reducing the risk of which cancer?

Liver

Endometrial

Stomach

Colon

Question 51

0 / 2 pts

What is the trigone?

A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter

The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys

A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra

One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle

Question 52

2 / 2 pts

What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?

Globulin

Albumin

Clotting factors

Complement proteins

Question 53

2 / 2 pts

The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries

Diffusion rate in the renal cortex

Diffusion rate in the renal medulla

Glomerular active transport

Question 54

0 / 2 pts

Which cells have phagocytic properties similar to monocytes and contract like smooth muscles cells, thereby influencing the glomerular filtration rate?

Principle cells

Podocin cells

Mesangial cells

Intercalated cells

Question 55

0 / 2 pts

Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?

Infants are obligatory nose breathers.

Their noses are small in diameter.

Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing.

Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s.

Question 56

2 / 2 pts

The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?

16 and 20

20 and 24

24 and 30

30 and 36

Question 57

2 / 2 pts

What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?

1:1 (one capillary per one muscle cell)

1:2 (one capillary per two muscle cells)

1:4 (one capillary per four muscle cells)

1:10 (one capillary per ten muscle cells)

Question 58

2 / 2 pts

A person with type O blood is considered to be the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?

No antigens

No antibodies

Both A and B antigens

Both A and B antibodies

Question 59

2 / 2 pts

The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?

Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)

Preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

Shortening the fibrin strands to retract the blood clot

Degrading the fibrin within blood clots

Question 60

2 / 2 pts

What effects do exercise and body position have on renal blood flow?

Exercise and body position activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.

They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasoconstriction.

Both activate renal parasympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.

They activate renal sympathetic neurons and cause mild vasodilation.

 

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Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the

thyroid gland.

smooth and skeletal muscles.

glomeruli of nephrons.

tubules of nephrons.

Question 2

2 / 2 pts

A surgical individual just arrived on the unit from the postanesthesia care unit. This person’s respirations are 4 per minute and shallow. As the nurse calls for assistance, the person suddenly feels jittery and breathing quickens. Which of the following feedback loops is operating for the nurse in this situation?

The central nervous system stimulates the hypothalamus to synthesize oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone, which are secreted by the posterior pituitary, activating uterine contraction and renal absorption of water.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the adrenal medulla to secrete epinephrine and stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH), stimulating the release of cortisol.

The central nervous system directly stimulates the release of insulin, which reduces blood glucose levels.

The central nervous system stimulates hypothalamus-releasing factor, which acts on the anterior pituitary gland to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and stimulates the release of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

Hormones are effective communicators because they

are regularly synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.

increase their secretion in response to rising hormone levels.

are rapidly degraded once they enter the cell.

decrease their secretion in response to rising plasma hormone levels.

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.

direct

pharmacologic

synergistic

permissive

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

What effect does aldosterone have on fluid and electrolyte imbalances?

It directly increases calcium reabsorption.

It directly increases sodium reabsorption.

It directly increases magnesium reabsorption.

It directly increases water reabsorption.

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

Triiodothyronine (T3)

Thyroxine (T4)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following hormones acts on its target cell via a second messenger?

Testosterone

Thyroxine

Estrogen

Angiotensin II

Question 8

2 / 2 pts

What hormone or electrolyte imbalance slows down the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Decreased serum magnesium levels

Decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Increased serum calcium levels

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?

Somatostatin

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

Alpha endorphin

Thyroid hormones

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located

on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

on the inner surface of the plasma membrane.

inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm.

inside the mitochondria.

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor (PRF)?

Anterior pituitary

Hypothalamus

Mammary glands

Posterior pituitary

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

Where is oxytocin synthesized?

Posterior pituitary

Paraventricular nuclei

Anterior pituitary

Hypothalamus

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in Graves disease is usually

high.

low.

normal.

in constant flux.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

Diabetes insipidus (DI)

Cushing disease

Hypoaldosteronism

Hyperthyroidism

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

The effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) include solute

dilution and water loss.

dilution and water retention.

retention and water retention.

retention and water loss.

Question 16

0 / 2 pts

Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of

chronic insulin resistance.

the formation of ketones.

an increase in antidiuretic hormone.

an elevation in serum glucose.

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Which of the following clinical manifestations is not common to both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS)?

Increased serum glucose

Glycosuria

Fluid loss

Kussmaul respirations

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

Diagnosing a thyroid carcinoma is best done with

fine-needle aspiration biopsy.

measurement of serum thyroid levels.

ultrasonography.

radioisotope scanning.

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

A man with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in his polyuria. These are indications of

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

psychogenic polydipsia.

osmotically induced diuresis.

syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH).

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by

hypothalamic hyposecretion.

a neurohypophysial tumor.

a pituitary adenoma.

autoimmune disorder of the pituitary.

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

The signs of thyroid crisis resulting from Graves disease include

constipation and lethargy.

bradycardia and bradypnea.

constipation with gastric distention.

hyperthermia and tachycardia.

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?

Cushing syndrome

Myxedema

Acromegaly

Giantism

Question 23

2 / 2 pts

The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the

anterior pituitary.

renal tubules.

thalamus.

posterior pituitary.

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

The most probable cause of low serum calcium following a thyroidectomy is

hypothyroidism caused by lack of thyroid replacement.

hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury.

hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease.

myxedema secondary to surgery.

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow.

Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia.

There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water.

 

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Clinical manifestations of fibromyalgia include

Question 1

2 / 2 pts

Clinical manifestations of fibromyalgia include

hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally.

exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps.

fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles.

burning or gnawing pain at tender points and profound fatigue.

Question 2

0 / 2 pts

What is the diagnosis of a person who has tennis elbow characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi brevis tendon?

Bursitis

Lateral epicondylitis

Lateral tendinitis

Medial tendinitis

Question 3

2 / 2 pts

_____ is the temporary displacement of two bones in which the bone surfaces partially lose contact.

Nonunion

Dislocation

Subluxation

Malunion

Question 4

2 / 2 pts

In ankylosing spondylitis, the CD8+ T cells are presented with which of the following antigens?

Tendons

Synovium

Cartilage

Ligaments

Question 5

2 / 2 pts

What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?

Overproduction of uric acid

Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels

Reduced excretion of purines

Overproduction of proteoglycans

Question 6

2 / 2 pts

_____ is a chronic inflammatory joint disease characterized by stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints.

Paget disease

Fibromyalgia

Ankylosing spondylitis

Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 7

2 / 2 pts

Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by

lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade.

smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia.

paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply.

release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells.

Question 8

0 / 2 pts

An insufficient dietary intake of vitamin _____ can lead to rickets in children.

D

B12

B6

C

Question 9

2 / 2 pts

Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscles fibers to the basement membrane?

Syntrophin

Dystrophin

Laminin

Troponin

Question 10

2 / 2 pts

Ewing sarcoma arises from

embryonal osteocytes.

metadiaphysis of long bones.

bone-producing mesenchymal cells.

bone marrow.

Question 11

2 / 2 pts

Osteochondrosis is caused by a(n)

bacterial infection of the bone.

nutritional deficiency of calcium and phosphorus.

imbalance between calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.

vascular impairment and trauma to bone.

Question 12

2 / 2 pts

Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with

TP53.

myc.

TSC2.

src.

Question 13

2 / 2 pts

The pain experienced in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease is referred to as involving

elbows and upper and lower arms and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs.

knees, inner thighs, and groin and is described as a continuous ache and relieved by anti-inflammatory drugs.

knees, inner thighs, and groin that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.

elbows and upper and lower arms that is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.

Question 14

2 / 2 pts

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is likely inherited from one’s

father.

mother.

affected parent.

maternal lineage.

Question 15

2 / 2 pts

The total mass of muscle in the body can be estimated from which serum laboratory test value?

Creatine

Blood urea nitrogen

Albumin

Creatinine

Question 16

2 / 2 pts

Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of _____ in small blood vessels as a toxic response allergen.

T lymphocytes

immune complexes

complement

IgE

Question 17

2 / 2 pts

Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?

Fibroblasts

Macrophages

Histiocytes

Mast cells

Question 18

2 / 2 pts

Which malignancy is characterized by slow-growing lesions that usually have depressed centers and rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck?

Squamous cell carcinoma

Kaposi sarcoma

Malignant melanoma

Basal cell carcinoma

Question 19

2 / 2 pts

Keloids are sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scars caused by excessive amounts of _____ in the corneum during connective tissue repair.

reticular fibers

collagen

elastin

stroma

Question 20

2 / 2 pts

_____ of the epidermis initiate immune responses and provide defense against environmental antigens.

Melanocytes

Keratinocytes

Merkel cells

Langerhans cells

Question 21

2 / 2 pts

Thrush is a superficial infection that commonly occurs in children and is caused by

Candida albicans.

Streptococcus.

Staphylococcus.

herpesvirus.

Question 22

2 / 2 pts

Which vascular anomaly is a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries that does not fade with age?

Cavernous hemangioma

Port-wine (nevus flammeus) stain

Strawberry hemangioma

Cutaneous hemangioma

Question 23

0 / 2 pts

Which of the following viral diseases has an incubation period of 14 to 21 days and a duration of 1 to 4 days?

Varicella

Rubeola

Roseola

Rubella

Question 24

2 / 2 pts

Which clinical manifestation is considered the hallmark of atopic dermatitis?

High fever

Itching

Papular rash

Vesicles that burst and form crusts

Question 25

2 / 2 pts

Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?

Rubeola

Scabies

Pediculosis

Tinea capitis

 

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